Блог пользователя Geothermal

Автор Geothermal, история, 5 лет назад, По-английски

A — 500 Yen Coins

We are essentially asked whether $$$500K \geq X$$$. We can determine this using an if statement. If you'd like to be fancy, you can shorten your code using the ternary operator, printing $$$\texttt{500K >= X ? "Yes" : "No"}$$$.

Runtime: $$$O(1)$$$. Click here for my submission.


B — Count ABC

There are several ways to do this. The first is to compute each three-letter substring of $$$S$$$, either through brute force or your language's substring computation function, then comparing them to "ABC". Another, which I implemented, is to simply iterate over each position in the string up to $$$N-3$$$, using zero-indexing, and check whether $$$S[i] = A$$$, $$$S[i+1] = B$$$, and $$$S[i+2] = C$$$. If so, we increment the answer. Either way, we can maintain a count of "ABC" substrings and return it at the end. (Of course, we theoretically could use a more complicated pattern matching algorithm, but because the string whose occurrences we're counting is extremely short, brute force is more than sufficient here.)

Runtime: $$$O(N)$$$. Click here for my submission.


C — Count Order

Obviously, if we can compute $$$a$$$ and $$$b$$$ efficiently, we're finished. Since the two values can be computed similarly, this reduces the problem to determining the lexicographical position of a permutation.

Luckily, $$$N$$$ is quite small, so we can use brute force. Using $$$\texttt{next_permutation}$$$ in C++, we can generate all permutations in lexicographical order and compare each of them to $$$P$$$ and $$$Q$$$ in order to compute $$$a$$$ and $$$b$$$. Then, we can print $$$|a-b|$$$, as requested. If you're not using C++, you could simply generate all arrays of $$$N$$$ numbers from $$$1$$$ to $$$N$$$ and ignore the ones that aren't permutations. This has complexity $$$O(N^{N+1})$$$, which still passes in time.

As an extra challenge, it turns out that there's a way to solve this problem in $$$O(N \log N)$$$. Of course, doing so is not necessary here and takes substantially more thought and code.

Runtime: $$$O(N \cdot N!)$$$. Click here for my submission.


D — Semi Common Multiple

It should be noted that much of this explanation is largely messy number theory used to prove that the solution works. The majority of the actual implementation details is contained in the final two paragraphs.

We are essentially being asked to count values of $$$X$$$ such that $$$X = \frac{a_i}{2} \mod a_i$$$ for all $$$i$$$. Let's start by characterizing the possible values of $$$X$$$. The key here is the Chinese remainder theorem, which tells us in this case that there is at most one valid solution to this system of modular congruences when we take it modulo $$$L = \texttt{lcm}(a_1, a_2, \cdots, a_n)$$$. In other words, there is at most one value $$$K$$$, with $$$0 \leq K < L$$$, such that $$$K = \frac{a_i}{2} \mod a_i$$$ for all $$$i$$$.

Now, there are two possible cases. First, suppose $$$2$$$ divides some two values of $$$a_i$$$ in the array a different number of times. (This is the case in the second sample input.) In this case, there is no working value of $$$K$$$. To prove this, suppose that $$$a_i$$$ is divisible by $$$2^a$$$ but not $$$2^{a+1}$$$, and $$$a_j$$$ is divisible by $$$2^b$$$ but not $$$2^{b+1}$$$, with $$$a < b$$$. Then, any value that is $$$\frac{a_i}{2} \mod a_i$$$ must be divisible by $$$2^{a-1}$$$ but not $$$2^a$$$, but any value satisfying the same equation for $$$a_j$$$ must be divisible by $$$2^{b-1}$$$, which, since $$$a < b$$$, implies that it is divisible by $$$2^a$$$, a contradiction. Therefore, in this case, the answer is $$$0$$$.

Now, assume that $$$2$$$ divides all $$$a_i$$$ the same number of times. In this case, $$$K = \frac{L}{2}$$$. We can see that since $$$L$$$ contains the same power of two as all of the $$$a_i$$$, $$$K$$$ contains the same power of two as all of the $$$\frac{a_i}{2}$$$ values, and for all other primes $$$p$$$ such that $$$p^k$$$ divides $$$a_i$$$, $$$L = a_i = 0$$$ mod $$$p^k$$$, so $$$\frac{L}{2} = \frac{a_i}{2}$$$ mod $$$p^k$$$, so $$$\frac{L}{2}$$$ will be congruent to $$$\frac{a_i}{2}$$$ modulo any power of any prime dividing $$$a_i$$$, proving that $$$\frac{L}{2} = \frac{a_i}{2} \mod a_i$$$, as desired.

By the way, it's probably not worth working through the logic to prove that $$$\frac{L}{2}$$$ works in the second case below--in-contest, I figured this out by experimenting with the sample inputs.

From here, we can first determine which case we're in--we can do this either by counting the times $$$2$$$ divides each $$$a_i$$$ or by computing $$$\frac{L}{2}$$$ and checking that it is congruent to $$$\frac{a_i}{2}$$$ modulo $$$a_i$$$ for all $$$i$$$. (Recall that we can compute the LCM of two numbers by multiplying them and taking their GCD. To prevent overflow, we need to return zero immediately if $$$L$$$ gets too large, noting that if $$$L > 2M$$$, the answer will always be zero.)

Now, we need to count values that are $$$\frac{L}{2}$$$ mod $$$L$$$ and less than or equal to $$$M$$$. To start, our answer is at least $$$M / L$$$, rounded down, since for any block of $$$L$$$ consecutive numbers, one of them will be $$$\frac{L}{2} \mod L$$$. Then, if $$$M \% L \geq \frac{L}{2}$$$, we get one extra value, so we increment the answer. Finally, we print the result.

Runtime: $$$O(N \log M)$$$. (The latter factor comes in from our LCM computation.) Click here for my submission.


E — Change a Little Bit

Starting with an observation, note that we should make the necessary changes in decreasing order of cost, as we want to pay the smallest cost the most times and the largest cost the fewest times. Let's sort the data so that without loss of generality, $$$C_1 \geq C_2 \geq \cdots \geq C_N$$$.

Now, let's compute the amount each $$$C_i$$$ contributes to the answer. We do this by computing the amount each $$$C_i$$$ contributes on average given a completely random $$$(S, T)$$$ pair (to simplify the computation, we won't assume $$$S \neq T$$$, as the cases where $$$S = T$$$ don't actually add to the answer) and multiplying by the $$$2^{2N}$$$ total ways to pick $$$S$$$ and $$$T$$$.

How much does $$$C_i$$$ contribute for any given string? Obviously, if the two strings are not different in position $$$i$$$, $$$C_i$$$ doesn't contribute at all. However, if the strings are different in position $$$i$$$, $$$C_i$$$ will count once for position $$$i$$$, plus once for each position less than $$$i$$$ at which $$$S$$$ and $$$T$$$ are different. $$$S$$$ and $$$T$$$ have a $$$\frac{1}{2}$$$ chance of differing at each position, so this adds $$$\frac{i-1}{2}$$$, using one-indexing, to our count, for a total of $$$\frac{i+1}{2} C_i$$$ as our average cost among strings that differ in position $$$i$$$. Half the strings differ in position $$$i$$$, so $$$C_i$$$ contributes $$$\frac{i+1}{4} C_i$$$ to our sum.

Thus, our answer is $$$2^{2N} \sum_{i = 1}^N \frac{i+1}{4} C_i$$$, or alternatively, $$$2^{2N-2} \sum_{i = 1}^N (i+1)C_i$$$. We can directly compute this sum in $$$O(N)$$$.

Runtime: $$$O(N \log N)$$$, due to sorting. Click here for my submission.


F — Xor Shift

Consider the function $$$d(a)$$$ that computes, given an array $$$a$$$, a result array such that $$$d[i] = a[i] \, XOR \, a[i+1]$$$ for $$$0 \leq i < N-1$$$ and $$$d[N-1] = a[N-1] \, XOR \, A[0].$$$ The first insight here is that the operation given in the problem is that $$$d(a')$$$ is a cyclic shift of $$$d(a)$$$ by $$$k$$$ positions. The proof is that XORing two values by the same number does not change the XOR of the two values--in other words, $$$(a \, XOR \, x) \, XOR \, (b \, XOR \, x) = a \, XOR b$$$ for all $$$a, b, x$$$, since XOR is commutative, associative, and satisfies $$$x \, XOR \, x = 0$$$. Therefore, since we obviously must have $$$d(a') = d(b)$$$, our values of $$$k$$$ must have that $$$d(a)$$$, cyclically shifted $$$k$$$ positions, is equal to $$$d(b)$$$.

The second observation is that all of these values of $$$k$$$ have exactly one value of $$$x$$$. The proof is that we can uniquely construct an array $$$a$$$ from $$$d(a)$$$ given $$$a[0]$$$, by the recursion $$$a[i+1] = a[i] \, XOR \, d[i]$$$. Thus, if $$$a[0] \, XOR \, x = b[(N-k) \mod N]$$$ and $$$d(a') = d(b)$$$, we will have $$$a' = b$$$. Thus, for any $$$k$$$ such that $$$d(a') = d(b)$$$, we can take $$$x = a[0] \, XOR \, b[(N-k) \mod N]$$$ and have a working pair. Note that this uniquely defines $$$x$$$, so there will be at most one value of $$$x$$$ for any $$$k$$$.

Now, we need to enumerate the ways to cyclically shift $$$d(a)$$$ to get $$$d(b)$$$. There are several ways to do this--the one I used involves hashing the sequence. Note that we can compute the polynomial hash of an array $$$d$$$ as $$$d[0] \cdot s^{N-1} + d[1] \cdot s^{N-2} + \cdots + d[N-1] \cdot s^0$$$ for some arbitrary base $$$s$$$, all modulo some large prime. We can compute the hash of $$$a$$$ and $$$b$$$ in $$$O(N)$$$. Then, to cyclically shift our hash of $$$a$$$ by one position, we can subtract $$$a[0] \cdot s^{N-1}$$$, multiply the remainder of the hash by $$$s$$$, and add $$$a[0]$$$ back. Now, we have the hash of the array $$$a[1], a[2], \cdots, a[N-1], a[0]$$$. We can repeat this process for all $$$i$$$ and list the cyclic shifts for which our hash of $$$a$$$ equals our hash of $$$b$$$. With an appropriate hashing prime (the prime should be low enough to prevent long long overflow but higher than $$$2^{30}$$$ to prevent collisions), this is extremely unlikely to cause collisions and should pass essentially every time.

Once we have our values of $$$k$$$, we can use the approach outlined above to compute the corresponding values of $$$x$$$, at which point we're done.

Complexity: $$$O(N)$$$. Click here for my submission.

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Thanx Geothermal :D