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Simplifincation of an equation involving Binomial Cofficients
Hi, good day to U'll.
I have the following equation :
= 
Can you help me with a proof for this ? BTW, this relates to the last part of the following problem : Link. The editorial for the problem tells us to convert the lhs to the rhs w/o any proof or explanation on how it is obtained. Any help would be useful
Thank You
