Now I give my proof.
notice that $$$\sin(x)\sin(y)=\frac{1}{2}(cos(x-y)-cos(x+y))$$$
inverse $$$\sin(x)\sin(y)=\frac{1}{2}(cos(x-y)-cos(x+y))$$$ to be $$$\cos(a)-\cos(b)=-2\sin(\frac{a+b}2)\sin(\frac{a-b}2)$$$
maybe a nice idea! What do u think?
I found a brilliant math conclusion
Now I give my proof.
notice that $$$\sin(x)\sin(y)=\frac{1}{2}(cos(x-y)-cos(x+y))$$$
inverse $$$\sin(x)\sin(y)=\frac{1}{2}(cos(x-y)-cos(x+y))$$$ to be $$$\cos(a)-\cos(b)=-2\sin(\frac{a+b}2)\sin(\frac{a-b}2)$$$
maybe a nice idea! What do u think?