Hi I would like to ask if the following observation has been made on any standard references.If so please share or give a proof for why such a property is exhibited

The motivating problem : If n and t is given , is there a m such that n/m = t;

Observation (note: all divisions are integer divisions)

For an integer n, there are pairs m1,m2 such that

n/m1 = m2 and n/m2 = m1;

for all integers t , which do not have a pair, then there is no integer i from 1 to n st n/i = t;

For eg: n = 15; The pairs are 1,15 2,7 3,5

if t = 7 , then m = 2 if t = 8 , then there is no such m