In goodbye 2019 problem G , it is mentioned that suppose an array with n elements is given such that each element a_i is from (i-n) to (i-1) then there exist subset of the array whose sum is zero . How to prove it ?
Codeforces Round 1133 (Div. 1, Div. 2) is coming soon! Register here.
→ Pay attention
→ Top rated
| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Benq | 3676 |
| 2 | Kevin114514 | 3659 |
| 3 | jiangly | 3640 |
| 4 | turmax | 3450 |
| 5 | tourist | 3382 |
| 6 | strapple | 3360 |
| 7 | Um_nik | 3354 |
| 8 | squareOf105 | 3348 |
| 9 | maroonrk | 3312 |
| 10 | idontwannadothis…e | 3191 |
→ Top contributors
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Qingyu | 155 |
| 2 | nik_exists | 151 |
| 3 | maspy | 149 |
| 4 | AmShZ | 145 |
| 5 | Um_nik | 143 |
| 6 | Errichto | 139 |
| 7 | BledDest | 136 |
| 8 | adamant | 134 |
| 9 | maroonrk | 132 |
| 10 | cry | 130 |
→ Find user
→ Recent actions
Codeforces (c) Copyright 2010-2026 Mike Mirzayanov
The only programming contests Web 2.0 platform
Server time: Nov/07/2026 05:03:19 (g2).
Desktop version, switch to mobile version.
Supported by
Well, read the editorial. The existence of a solution is proof of your lemma.