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The proofs of A and B are amazing.
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OMG, that's such a nice proof, thank you!!
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I know a DSU solution works. My question is specifically about the proof in the editorial. I'm curious why the condition $$$x + y \le n$$$ guarantees that we can always move from $$$i$$$ to $$$i \pm \gcd(x, y)$$$ without leaving the array.
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Can someone provide a proof of why the condition $$$x + y \le n$$$ is sufficient?
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Nice B
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You call this a classic div 4 problem make me think a way to solve without fenwick tree and finally the editorial jumps straight to PBDS:))